[和合本] 从前百姓在利未人祭司职任以下受律法，倘若藉这职任能得完全，又何用另外兴起一位祭司，照麦基洗德的等次，不照亚伦的等次呢？
[新标点] 从前百姓在利未人祭司职任以下受律法，倘若借这职任能得完全，又何用另外兴起一位祭司，照麦基洗德的等次，不照亚伦的等次呢？
[和合修] 那么，如果百姓藉着利未人的祭司职任能达到完全—因为百姓是在这职分下领受律法的—为什么还需要按照麦基洗德的体系另外兴起一位祭司，而不按照亚伦的体系呢？
[新译本] 这样看来，如果借着利未人的祭司制度能达到完全的地步（人民是在这制度下领受律法的），为什么还需要照着麦基洗德的体系，另外兴起一位祭司，而不照着亚伦的体系呢？
[当代修] （大祭司耶稣）犹太人在利未祭司制度的基础上承受了律法，如果通过这个祭司制度可以达到纯全，又何必照麦基洗德的模式而不是亚伦的模式，另外兴起一位祭司呢？
[现代修] 从前颁给以色列人民的法律是根据利未的祭司制度的。那么，要是利未祭司制度的工作是完全的，就用不着有另一种麦基洗德——不是亚伦——制度的祭司出现。
[吕振中] 这样看来，倘若藉着利未人的祭司职分能有完全胜任的资格［人民之领受了律法倒是以这职分为基本］，哪里还需要另一种的一位祭司兴起来、是照麦基洗德的等次、而不称为照亚伦的等次呢？
[思高本] （旧约与肋未司祭职是暂时的）那么，如果藉着肋未司祭职能有成全──因为选民就是本着这司祭职接受了法律──为什么还需要兴起另一位，按照默基瑟德品位的司祭，而不称为按照亚巴郎的品位呢？
[文理本] 昔民在利未人祭司职下受律、若由之得完全、则何须别兴一祭司、依麦基洗德之班、而不谓之依亚伦班乎、
[GNT] It was on the basis of the levitical priesthood that the Law was given to the people of Israel. Now, if the work of the levitical priests had been perfect, there would have been no need for a different kind of priest to appear, one who is in the priestly order of Melchizedek, not of Aaron.
[BBE] Because he was still in his father's body when Melchizedek came to him.
[KJV] If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
[NKJV] Therefore, if perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need [was there] that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be called according to the order of Aaron?
[KJ21] If therefore perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be called according to the order of Aaron
[NASB] So if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron?
[NRSV] Now if perfection had been attainable through the levitical priesthood-- for the people received the law under this priesthood-- what further need would there have been to speak of another priest arising according to the order of Melchizedek, rather than
[WEB] Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
[ESV] Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron?
[NIV] If perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the law was given to the people), why was there still need for another priest to come--one in the order of Melchizedek, not in the order of Aaron?
[NIrV] That's because when Melchizedek met Abraham, Levi was still in Abraham's body.
[HCSB] If, then, perfection came through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise in the order of Melchizedek, and not to be described as being in the order of Aaron?
[CSB] If, then, perfection came through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise in the order of Melchizedek, and not to be described as being in the order of Aaron?
[AMP] Now if perfection (a perfect fellowship between God and the worshiper) had been attainable by the Levitical priesthood--for under it the people were given the Law--why was it further necessary that there should arise another and different kind of Priest, one after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one appointed after the order and rank of Aaron?
[NLT] So if the priesthood of Levi, on which the law was based, could have achieved the perfection God intended, why did God need to establish a different priesthood, with a priest in the order of Melchizedek instead of the order of Levi and Aaron?
[YLT] If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood -- for the people under it had received law -- what further need, according to the order of Melchisedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?